Submitted by Jbax, Jan 29, 2007 21:02

What "long-standing military cooperation" is Mr. Coughlin referring to. This statement assumes facts which are not explained, nor of which I have ever heard? What evidence is there supporting the existence of such a military relationship? Does it pre-date the U.S. aggression towards both nations?

It is this type of irresponsible, incomplete, and conclusory reporting (reporting which casually slips in unsupported conclusions) which misleads the public and allows such things as the invasion of Iraq and the upcoming invasion of Iran to take place, even though there is no justification. It's sad really. I wish certain people with a louder voice than just me had the guts to further question this type of reporting. That one comment about the "long-standing military cooperation" simply strengthens the baseless propoganda, which is of the same type used to justify the now-criticized illegal invasion of Iraq. Sad that our media, the "press" which is supposed to be free, is complicit in proliferating incomplete or incorrect information.

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