Submitted by Diann Guillaume, Oct 25, 2007 16:35

It is my understanding that the "Establishment Clause" does not allow for schools(govt.) to act in a manner that encourages or discourages one religion over the other. Further, does the term "neutrality" ring a bell? Why is it ok to allow sysmbols of of one faith and not the other. A comment was made that the nativity scence does not reflect truth and that was the basis for the Supreme Court's holding. Then this begs the question what truths were proven for the symbols of the other religious groups mentioned? In addition, one shoud also ask, the faith of the Justices at the time this decision was handed down?

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