Submitted by Ed Boswell, Aug 9, 2007 21:56

Obviously, neither the author or this reviewer has devoted any time to the Shakespeare authorship question to blow it off with such impunity. I feel like I'm reading about a geocentric universe with copernicus portrayed as a nutcase. If Oxford is not Shakesperare, then why did his family publish the first folio? Why is Hamlet the story of Oxford's life, replete with Polonius/Cecil and Ophelia/Anne Cecil? Why is it that Oxford went to law school, toured the Italian cities in the plays, knew music and botany, and spoke latin and french fluently, as considered to be crucial elements of experience in order to write the body of work?

Let's just someone without an education, before there was an english dictionary just came up with all of this off the top of his head, A great lesson to teach children, that it comes to true geniuses not from experience, but from rank greed and divine intervention

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